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1)  Goffman's work

a. applies only to Psychiatric hospitals
b. based on field work carried out in American hospitals
c. illuminates institutional behaviour
d. has not had influence in social theory
e. is based on quantitative research methodology

 

2) Skin conductance-galvanic skin response

a. increased in depression.
b. increase with exposure -desensitisation and reduce after it.
c. increased in Agoraphobia.
d. variable in chronic schizophrenia.
e. reduced when administering a short acting benzodiazepine

 

3)  Dopamine receptors

a. research shows that 5-10 mg of Haloperidol is enough to block 80% dopamine      receptors
b. D 1 receptors are linked to adenylate cyclase
c. D 3 receptors exist in high concentration in the limbic system
d. sulpiride specifically blocks D1
e. are found in retina

 

4)  Dopamine neurones

a.also secrete Noradrenaline
b.exist in rubrospinal tract
c.exist in mesolimbic tract
d.exist in tuberoinfundibular tract
e.have a role in stimulating prolacting release

 

5)  Eysenck's theory

a. is an idiographic theory
b. extroverts are slower to condition
c. extroverts seek external stimulation
d. introverts have high cortical arousal
e. can be used to predict prognosis in personality disordered

 

6)  Authoritative parenting

a. improve self esteem
b. set home rules
c. excess of emotional warmth is related to the onset of psychosis in children
d. laisser faire parenting associated with drug abuse in children
e.retain veto

 

7)  Spearman's work

a. describes concept of "g"(general intelligence)
b. describes the concept of "s"(specific intelligence)
c. derives from factor analysis
d. states that intelligence is completely due to genetic inheritance
e. there is a negative correlation between different sections in IQ tests

 

8)  Labelling theory

a. is derived from deviance theory
b. it is important in psychiatric classifications
c. depends.on cultural stereotypes
d. explains negative symptoms of schizophrenia
e. explains locus of control

 

9)  Learning theory

a. incidental memory more effective than intentional memory
b. primary memory is stored in about 7 bits of information
c. retrograde amnesia produced by retroactive interference
d. post traumatic amnesia is the same as anterograde amnesia
e. retroactive inhibition can be suppressed by drugs

 

10)  ECT

a. increases prolactin
b. memory loss directly related to voltage
c. produces irreversible memory loss
d. less memory loss if minimal dose of anaesthetic is used
e. should be given on the left side if left handed

 

11)  Screening tests in General Hospitals setting

a. should have cut off points with high sensitivity and specificity
b. includes CAGE
c. scores must have a normal distribution
d. includes MMSE
e. includes HADS

 

12)  Serotonin mediates

a. aggressive behaviour
b. sexual behaviour
c. sleep
d. weight gain
e. problem solving behaviour in animals

 

13)  Lithium interferes with the activity of

a.  inositol
b.  TSH
c.  prolactin
d.  CRH
e.  FSH

 

14)  Following can be measured on the scalp

a.  CNV
b.  P 300
c.  theta waves
d.  brainstem auditory potential
e.  VEP

 

15)  With regards to neuroleptic treatment

a.  D3 is most frequently affected in the limbic system
b.  D1 activates adenyl cyclase
c.  thioxanthines shoe stereo isomerism
d.  clopromazine and promazine enhances each others effects
e.  5-10 mgs of haloperidol blocks most of the D2 receptors

 

16)  Chronic barbiturate intoxication causes

a.  dysarthria
b.  nystagmus
c.  increased frontal fast activity on EEG
d.  withdrawl delirium
e.  brisk tendon reflexes

 

17)  Following are features of neuroleptic malignant syndrome

a.  increased neutrophils
b.  males affected more than females
c.  untreated mortality is 20%
d.  worse with drug
e.  caused by D2 receptor blockade

 

18)  Dopamine receptors

a.  Dl causes E.P. side effects
b.  D2 is found in mesolimbic area
c.  suipride affects D1+D2
d.  all neuroleptics influence D2
e.  post-synaptic adenylate is affected by Dl antagonists

 

19)  The half-life of the following benzodiazepines is more than 24 hours

a.  nitrazepam
b.  lorazepam
c.  oxazepam
d.  flurazepam
e.  diazepam

 

20)  Fluoxetine

a.  is related to suicide
b.  is contra-indicated with MA0Is
c.  is a 5HT reuptake inhibitor
d.  causes tardive dyskinesia
e.  is a known to cause insomnia

 

21)  The following drugs prevent ejaculation

a.  beta-adrenergic blockers
b.  alpha-adrenergic blockers
c.  diazepam/benzodiazepines
d.  lithium
e.  paroxetine

 

22)  Following are correct regarding alpha waves on the EEG

a. between 7 to 13 Hz
b.  absent with eyes open
c.  laterality difference in amplitude is pathological
d.  increased with attention
e.  greatest in occipito-parietal area

 

23)  The following statements are true

a. 1 st pass metabolism in benzodiazepines produces active metabolites
b.  lithium potentiates action of TCADs
c.  tryptophan potentiates the action of TCADs
d.  lithium is less effective in elderly compared with middle aged patients in
     prophylaxis for depression
e.  thioridazine causes retinal pigmentation

 

24)  Side-effects of chlorpromazine

a.  rabbit syndrome
b.  PISA syndrome
c.  tardive akathesia
d.  torticollis
e.  hyperprolactinemia

,

25)  Regarding heroin

a.  there is 4% mortality in 2 years
b.  it is associated with criminality
c.  there is depression on withdrawl
d.  associated with persecutory delusions
e.  use of Methadone during pregnancy will not cause withdrawl in infants

 

26)  Visual hallucinations are caused by

a.  cannabis
b.  opium
c.  phencyclidine
d.  butane
e.  pentazocine

 

27)  Lithium reacts dangerously with

a.  phenelzine
b.  clomipramine
c.  haloperidol
d.  carbamazepine
e.  alcohol

 

28)  Regarding LSD

a.  it constricts the pupil
b.  is detectable in urine by radio-immune assay
c.  it is a 5HT antagonist
d.  it is found in magic mushrooms
e.  25 micrograms are required for psychosomatic effect

 

29)  Opiate addicts

a.  80% will serve a prison sentence
b.  pregnant addicts can be prescribed methadone so as to avoid withdrawl symptoms in the neonate
c.  4% will be dead in 2 years
d.  depression is a common sequelae of withdrawl
e.  can be prescribed buprenorphine as an alternative to methadone

 

30) Regarding Benzodiazepines

a.  the longer acting preparations are less likely to cause dependence
b.  increased sensitivity to noise occurs in withdrawl
c.  most patients who have been on BNZs for 1 year do not experience withdrawl
d.  shorter acting preparations are used to withdraw patients
e.  depression is a common sequelae after withdrawl

 

31)  In alcohol dependence

a.  women have a higher incidence of physical complications at lower levels of intake than men
b.  there is a direct relationship between the quantity of alcohol consumed and mortality figures
c.  prevalence is related to the price of alcohol
d.  drinking protects against coronary heart disease
e.  the CAGE is a reliable screening test in the general population

 

32)  Alcohol abuse in women

a.  is a problem in less than 10% of medical admissions
b.  most women have drunk alcohol by age of 14
c.  women have an increased risk of cirrhosis compared to men
d.  women who have been murdered have often been drinking
e.  there is reduced family history of alcoholism

 

33)  In acute alcohol withdrawl

a.  there is increased autonomic activity
b.  hallucinations occur in 15% of the patients
c.  benzodiazepines are effective in suppressing hallucinations
d.  mild cases can be treated at home
e.  patients should be nursed in a quite dark room on their own

 

34)  Confusional state may be caused by

a. paracetamol
b.  cimetidine
c.  procyclidine
d.  dothiepin
e.  methylcellulose

 

35)  Alcohol dependence syndrome is associated with

a.  family history of alcoholism
b.  family history of depressive illness
c.  alcohol dehydrogenase deficiency
d.  maternal separation in childhood
e.  histrionic personality disorder

 

36)  Benzodiazepines

a.  commonly lead to dependence within 2 months
b.  are especially indicated when panic attacks are associated with GAD
c.  are better than TCAs
d.  short acting compounds cause less dependence
e.  dependence in elderly can be easily treated by rapid withdrawl

 

37)  Clozapine has less of the following side-effects

a.  sedation
b.  dry mouth
c.  postural hypotension
d.  weight gain
e.  blurred vision

 

38)  Lithium causes

a.  drowsiness
b.  fine tremors
c.  nephrogenic diabetes mellitus
d.  hyperparathyroidism
e.  hypothyroidism

 

39)  Benzodiazepine partial agonists

a.  causes hyperpolarisation of cells
b.  are antagonised by BNZ antagonists
c.  antagonises GABA
d.  includes zimovane
e.  are better than benzodiazepines for treating anxiety

 

40)  Alcohol withdrawl is associated with

a.  absence seizures
b.  auditory hallucinations
c.  hypersomnolence
d.  affect-laden dreams
e.  coarse tremors

 

41)  Clozapine acts on the following receptors

a.  5HT2 agonists
b.  mostly on Dl receptors
c.  has selective striatal D2 blockade
d.  mostly on D3 and D4 receptors
e.  is an alpha 2 adrenergic antagonist

 

42)  In drug addiction

a.  nalorphine(naloxone) has longer half-life than naltrexate
b.  methadone is given twice daily
c.  heroin causes more euphoria than morphine
d.  heroin abuse is commoner than cocaine abuse
e.  heminevrin is safe for detoxification at home

 

43)  The following are precursors of Monoamines

a.  5 0H tryptophan
b.  5 0H tryptamine
c.  dihydroxy phenylalanine
d.  50H DOPA
e.  L tryphtophan

 

44)  The following are recognised neurotransmitters

a.  nor-adrenaline
b.  glycine
c.  glutamic acid
d.  taurine
e.  cholecystokinin

 

45)  The following drugs cause a decrease in libido in males

a.  carbamazepine
b.  benperidol
c.  trifluoperazine
d.  benzodiazepines
e.  lithium

 

46)  The following are parts of hypothalamus

a.  medial eminence
b.  stria terminalis
c.  4th ventricle
d.  ventromedial nucleus
e.  red nucleus

 

47)  The following nuclei are neuro secretory

a.  Edinger-Westphal
b.  supra-optic
c.  para-ventricular
d.  amygdala
e.  caudate nucleus

 

48)  Protein found in the CSF above the level of 2 gms/ml is indicative of

a.  Guillian-Barre Syndrome
b.  Alzheimers Disease
c.  multiple sclerosis
d.  spinal epidural abcess
e.  acoustic neuroma

 

49)  In a lesion of C5, the following signs are seen

a.  sensory loss over biceps
b.  sensory loss over the little finger
c.  loss of flexion in the interphalangeal joints
d.  motor loss of the triceps
e.  loss of triceps tendon jerk

 

50)  The levels in the normal CSF are as follows

a.  cells less than 5
b.  glucose 10-2omgs/100 ml
c.  proteins 20-40 mgs/100 ml
d.  clear
e.  chloride 220 meq/litre


 

51)  The following are precursors of Nor-Adrenaline

a.  tyrosine
b.  serotonin
c.  adrenaline
d.  acetyl choline
e.  dopamine

 

52)  Complications of alcohol abuse include

a.  cardiomyopathy
b.  carcinoma of oesophagus
c.  hypertension
d.  Parkinson’s Disease
e.  reduced serum testosterone

 

53)  Alcohol detoxification at home is contra-indicated

a.  if there is severe craving
b.  never had supervised detoxification previously
c.  if an in-patient bed is available
d.  had DTs previously
e.  had a seizure in last 2 years

 

54)  Drug receptors

a.  benzodiazepines are antagonists to GABA receptor complex
b.  D2 blockers are more effective antipsychotics than Dl blockers
c.  Buspirone is a 5HT2 receptor agonist
d.  D3 receptors are in high density in limbic system
e.  5-10 mgs of Haloperidol effectively block D2 receptors

 

55)  Side-effects of trifluoperazine are

a.  jaundice
b.  dystonic reaction
c.  myoclonic jerks
d.  oculogyric crisis
e.  NMS

 

56) Methyl Alcohol poisoning causes

a.  blindness
b.  vomiting
c. acute paranoid reaction
d.  depressive illness
e.  tactile hallucinosis

 

57)  Physical dependence occurs with the regular use of

a.  dihydrocodeine
b.  methaqualone
c.  pimozide
d.  chlorpromazine
e.  dipipanone 

 

58)  Unwanted side-effects of TCADs include

a.  hypotension
b.  diarrhoea
c.  weight gain
d.  difficulty in micturition
e.  blurred vision

 

59)  Heroin addiction in the young female 

a.  she is unlikely to use drugs other than heroin
b.  there is an increase in sexual activity
c.  has a better prognosis than a male of similar age
d.  she is often a social rebel from a stable family
e.  she is likely to die of barbiturate overdose

 

60)  The following features help the general practitioner in detecting alcoholism

a.  morning nausea
b.  shaking on waking
c.  smell of alcohol on breath
d.  unexplained absence from work
e.  hypnogogic hallucinations


 

61) The cerebellum contains the following

  1. Dentate nucleus
  2. substantia nigra
  3. vermis
  4. hippocampus
  5. globus pallidus

 

62)  Anterior pitutary function is regulated by

  1. nigrostriatal pathway
  2. hypothalamic control
  3. CNS control
  4. negative feedback control
  5. environmental stimulus

 

63)  Factors having recognised influence on intelligence test performance include

  1. motivation
  2. anxiety
  3. fatigue
  4. heridity
  5. age

 

64)  Characteristic features of Gerstmann's syndrome include

  1. opthalmoplegia
  2. finger agnosia
  3. acalculia
  4. agraphia
  5. ataxia

 

65)  Psychological tests of organic brain disease include

  1. MMPI
  2. new word learning tests
  3. Rorschhach
  4. personality inventories
  5. memory for designs tests

 

66)  Parasympathetic action characteristically include

  1. dilatation of the pupil
  2. decrease of vthe heart rate
  3. decrease in salivation
  4. bronchial constriction
  5. decrease in peristalsis

 

67)  Incidence refers to

  1. the number of new cases emerging in a designated period and population
  2. the point prevalance of an illness
  3. the period prevalance of an illness
  4. the readmission rate
  5. the number of cases suffering from an illness in a designated period and population

 

68)  The following are true with regards to Yerkes-Dodson law

  1. at low level of anxiety further stimulation is associated with decreased performance
  2. the relationship between anxiety and performance is a straight forward one of
    negative coorelation
  3. if an anxiety level is low, taking an anxiolytic drug may reduce performance
  4. anxiety and performance are optimal when sympathetic drive is at a maximum
  5. a sudden drop in performance may result from stimulating further of an already highly
    anxious patient

 

69)  Reliability of an instrument

  1. is high if ratings of the same material by different raters using that instrument are simillar
  2. is the repeatability of it's measurement
  3. means that it measures what it's intended to
  4. is high if it's measurements accord with those of another instrument supposed to
    have the same function
  5. is concerned with the accuracy of it's measurements

 

70)  A placebo in a clinical trial

  1. should be given with as much confidence as the active drug
  2. is pharmacologically inert
  3. should be identical in apearance to the drug being studied
  4. has no effects
  5. is best administered by someone who is unaware of the tablet's contents

 


 

71)  Sexual Exhibitionism

  1. prognosis is poor after reconviction
  2. tends to occur following stress
  3. occurs more commonly after age 30
  4. there is a lack of heterosexual relationships
  5. is prone to assault physically

 

72)  Compared to adoptive families, biological families of schizophrenic child
are more likely to have

  1. lower incidence of schizophrenia
  2. increased incidence of alcoholism
  3. increased incidence of personality disorder
  4. increased incidence of depression
  5. increased incidence of organic psychosis

 

73)  Most neurotic patients attending a GP's surgery, compared to age
and sex controlled groups are more likely to be

  1. physically healthy
  2. socially disadvantaged
  3. in conflict with their social roles
  4. referred to non-psychiatric hospital clinics
  5. eventually be diagnosed as suffering from somatisation

 

74)  Female homosexuals

  1. frequently have XO genotype
  2. consult psychiatrists more frequently than male homosexuals
  3. typically describe early adverse sexual experience with  a male
  4. have male distribution of pubic hair
  5. frequently have other sexual disorders

 

75)  With respect to transcultural psychiatry

  1. toxic psychosis is commoner than schizophrenia in Africa
  2. Hutterites have a high incidence of schizophrenia
  3. typical depression is not seen in Africa
  4. echolalia is a feature of Latah
  5. typical schizophrenia is only seen in it's pure form in industrialised countries

 

76)  Following are true of OCD

  1. there is a definite genetic component
  2. projection is one of the mechanisms involved
  3. clomipramine is ineffective in the absence of depression
  4. desentisation is the best treatment for rituals
  5. psychosurgery can be carried out with patients consent alone

 

77)  Following are likely to be dissociative disorders

  1. unilateral upgoing plantar
  2. glove and stocking anaesthesia
  3. corkscrew vision
  4. painless injuries to the hand
  5. impotence following a life threatening accident

 

78)  A 60 yr old man suddenly becomes convinced that he has cancer.
He has a weight loss of 6 kgs, and his physical investigations have
been normal.

  1. he may well have cancer
  2. he may have hypochondriasis
  3. he is likely to respond to authoritative reassurance
  4. the most likely diagnosis is an illness phobia
  5. he is likely to be dementing

 

79)  Indecent exposure

  1. may respond to shame aversion techniques
  2. is likely to be followed by physical assault
  3. re-offending after the first conviction is low
  4. usually occurs in the absence of a satisfactory heterosexual relationship
  5. is usually followed by indecent assault

 

80)  Chronic institutionalised schizophrenic patients

  1. are more likely to be male than female
  2. underestimate their age
  3. have incontinence in 1/3
  4. score poorly on IQ tests
  5. simillar in cognitive deficits to mentally handicapped